30. An administrator cannot connect to a network volume.
Which of the following is the best path for the administrator to use?
Explanation: The UNC \\computername\C$ or \\ipaddress\C$ would be the
best option. This allows the administrator to connect to the hidden
share for the root of C. if the administrator has issues connecting
to a network volume with a particular share name, they should use the
hidden share. This can be done by computer name or by IP address. It
would not be necessary to connect utilizing HTTP. Also, it is not wise
to share the C: drive with a share name called “C”. See
the section titled "File Security" in Chapter 15 "Security"
for more information.
31. Your boss asks you to install a new wireless network. Which of
the following should you implement on the wireless network to help prevent
unauthorized access? (Select the two best answers.)
A. Install additional wireless access points
B. Use WPA2
C. Broadcast the SSID
D. Use a MAC filtering
E. install a signal booster
Answers: B and D
Explanation: By using WPA2 (the strongest type of encryption on most
wireless access points) you ensure a high level of encryption, helping
to reduce unauthorized access. Using MAC filtering filters out unwanted
computers by checking their MAC address when the computers first try
to connect. Additional wireless access points and signal boosters would
increase the chances of unauthorized access. Broadcasting the SSID also
increases the chance of unauthorized access, because any wireless device
will see the name of your network. When all wireless devices have made
their initial connection to the wireless access point, consider disabling
the SSID broadcast. See the section titled “Installing and Configuring
a SOHO Network” In Chapter 14 "Networking" for more
32. In Windows 7, which of the following enable administrators to perform
administrative tasks that integrate scripts?
B. Command Prompt
D. Windows Script Host
Explanation: The Windows 7 PowerShell enables administrators to perform
administrative tasks that integrates scripts and executables. It is
a combination of the Command Prompt and a scripting language. The PowerShell
is the successor to the Windows Script Host. The Command Prompt is Windows
version of a command-line. It is not as functional as the PowerShell.
See the section titled "Windows User Interfaces" in Chapter
8 "Configuring Windows" for more information.
33. Which of the following tools should you use in Windows 7 to migrate
user files and settings for multiple computers?
A. Files and Settings Transfer Wizard
B. Windows Easy Transfer
C. User State Migration Tool
D. Profile Transfer Tool
Explanation: the User State Migration Tool (USMT) is a command-line
tool that can be used to migrate user files and settings for one or
more computers in Windows 7 as well as Windows Vista. Windows 7 and
employs additional features such as AES encryption support and shadow
copying of volumes of information. The Files and Settings Transfer Wizard
is an older version of Windows Easy Transfer that is used with Windows
XP, 2000 and other older operating systems. Windows Easy Transfer enables
you to copy files, photos, music and settings, but not for multiple
computers. See the section titled "System Tools and Utilities"
in Chapter 8 "Configuring Windows" for more information.
34. Which of the following file systems is suited specifically for
USB flash drives?
Explanation: FAT64 (also known as exFAT) is suited specifically for
USB flash drives, and many other mobile storage solutions. It is the
successor to FAT32, and can format media that is larger than 32 GB with
a single partition. Older file systems such as FAT32 and FAT16 are very
limited as to the partition size. NTFS can be a good solution for USB
flash drives, but FAT64 was developed specifically for USB flash drives
and is the better solution if you have an operating system that will
support it such as: Windows 7, Windows Server 2008, Windows Vista with
service pack one and so on. See the section titled "Files, File
Systems, and Disks" in Chapter 8 "Configuring Windows"
for more information.
35. Which of the following programs in Windows 7 saves problem descriptions
A. Dr. Watson
B. Problem Reports and Solutions
C. Action Center
D. Performance Monitor
Explanation: The Action Center in Windows 7 can save problem descriptions
and solutions; this is done in the archived messages section. The Action
Center could be considered the successor to the Problem Reports and
Solutions of Windows Vista, and the grandsire of Dr. Watson in Windows
XP. Performance Monitor is a program that tracks how much of your devices
resources are being utilized, for example what percentage of the processor
is used. See the section titled "Windows Tools and Errors"
in Chapter 10 "Troubleshooting Windows" for more information.
36. Windows XP uses which of the following protocols to configure and
monitor printer device status?
Explanation: The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) can be used
to monitor remote computers and printers. This requires the installation
of SNMP on the appropriate hosts. SMTP is the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
which deals with the sending of e-mail. IPX/SPX is a Novell-based communications
protocol that has been all but phased out by TCP/IP. IPP is the Internet
Printing Protocol which allows hosts to print documents to a remote
printer without the need for UNC paths. DNS is the Domain Name System
which resolves domain names to their corresponding IP addresses. For
more information on networking protocols see the section titled "Networking
Fundamentals" in Chapter 14 "Networking" for more information.
37. A co-worker tells you that a program on their computer is collecting
information such as the computer name and IP address and sending that
information to a specific IP address on the Internet. What kind of threat
is this an example of?
Explanation: Spyware is a type of malicious software that is usually
downloaded unwittingly by a user or is installed by third-party software.
It collects information about the user and the user's computer without
the users consent. A virus is code that runs on the computer without
the user’s knowledge; it infects a computer when the code is accessed
and executed. A rootkit is software designed to gain administrator level
control over a computer system without being detected. Spam is the abuse
of electronic messaging systems such as e-mail. See the section titled
"Malicious Software" in Chapter 15 "Security" for
38. A customer of yours has a home office. Which of the following technologies
would benefit from the use of QoS?
B. Instant messaging
Explanation: Voice over IP (VoIP) is a streaming telephony application.
Streaming applications such as VoIP and online games can benefit from
QoS. QoS stands for Quality of Service, which is the ability to provide
different priorities to different applications. It guarantees network
bandwidth for real-time streaming of the media applications such as
VoIP. The SSID is the name or identifier of a wireless network. Instant
messaging and e-mail are not treating applications, therefore they would
not benefit from the use of QoS. See the section titled "Installing
and Configuring a SOHO Network" in Chapter 14 "Networking"
for more information.
39. Which of the following are descriptions or examples of unicast
IPv6 addresses? (Select the two best answers.)
A. An address assigned to a group of interfaces where the packets are
delivered to all interfaces
B. An address assigned to one interface
C. An address assigned to a group of interfaces where the packets are
delivered to the first interface only
D. A loopback address of ::1
Answers: B and D
Explanation: Unicast IPv6 addresses are addresses assigned to one interface
on a host. Examples of unicast IPv6 addresses include Global unicast
addresses that begin at 2000, link-local addresses that begin at FE80::/10,
and the loopback address ::1. Addresses assigned to a group of interfaces
where the packets are delivered to all interfaces are known as multicast
addresses. Addresses assigned to a group of interfaces where the packets
are delivered to the first interface only are known as anycast addresses.
See the section titled “Networking Fundamentals” in Chapter
14 “Networking” for more information.
40. Which of the following is the best solution for repairing a hard
drive when a computer displays an “NTLDR is missing error”
A. Recovery Console with the fixmbr command.
B. Recovery Console with the fixboot command.
C. Recovery Console with the chkdsk command.
D. Recovery Console with the bootcfg /rebuild command.
Explanation: The Recovery Console is a system recovery tool used in
Windows XP and 2000. There are a lot of different commands that can
be issued in this mode. If the NTLDR file has been damaged or is missing,
it can be re-written to the hard disk by issuing the fixboot command
while in the Recovery Console. NTLDR can also be manually copied from
the CD-ROM disc if necessary. The fixmbr command will rewrite the master
boot record of the hard drive. The chkdsk command will check the integrity
of the disk. Bootcfg /rebuild can be used to scan for the operating
system installations and rebuild that information into the boot.ini
file. See the section titled “Repair Environments and Boot Errors”
in Chapter 10 “Troubleshooting Windows” for more information.
41. Where can a user’s Desktop folder be found in Windows Vista
B. C:\Documents and Settings\%username%\desktop
C. C:\System Volume Information\%username%\desktop
Explanation: Every user profile gets a Desktop folder by default. This
folder will be located within the user profile folder, which is shown
in the answer as a variable %username%. In a standard Windows Vista
configuration, the Documents and Settings and System Volume Information
folders will be hidden and access will be denied. The System32 folder
is inside the Windows folder, not the Users folder. See the section
titled “Files, File Systems, and Disks” in Chapter 8, “Configuring
Windows” for more information.
42. A technician gets a call from a customer with a Windows XP computer.
The customer has just installed a new program. When the customer opens
a file, it opens in a program that the customer does not want to use.
Which of the following is the correct navigational path to change the
A. Control Panel > Tools > Folder Options > Offline Files >
B. Control Panel > Tools > Folder Options > View > Restore
C. Control Panel > Tools > Folder Options > View > Reset
D. Control Panel > Tools > Folder Options > File Types
Explanation: The File Types section of the Folder Options dialog box
is where program associations can be set. The user has the ability to
decide what programs will open any known file extensions. The other
locations each serve a different purpose. Offline files can only be
modified if fast user switching is turned off; however, this is not
associated with file types. Restore Defaults and Reset All Folders deals
with the file and folder settings but is not associated with file types.
See the section titled “Files, File Systems, and Disks”
in Chapter 8, “Configuring Windows” for more information.
43. You want to prevent Windows 7 from loading particular applications.
What tool would you use to accomplish this?
Explanation: The System Configuration tool (MSconfig) can be used to
modify how the system boots, what services will be loaded, and what
applications will be loaded at startup. Dir will show the contents of
a directory in the command-line. The Registry Editor (Regedit) is used
to access and modify the registry database. MD is short for make directory;
it is used to create directories or folders from within the command-line.
See the section titled “System Tools and Utilities” in Chapter
8, “Configuring Windows” for more information.
44. You are building a new PC for a customer. Which of the following
is the most valid reason why you would select SATA 2.0 over the original
A. You are installing an external SATA drive
B. You are attempting to implement hot-swapping functionality
C. You are trying to optimize the system for audio and video
D. You do not want to use jumpers
Explanation: SATA 2.0 (maximum transfer rate of 300 MB/s) can send and
receive twice as much data as SATA 1.0 (maximum transfer rate of 150
MB/s). This makes it the better choice for audio and video applications
and would be the most valid reason why you would select it for a new
computer. When building a new computer, you would most likely start
with an internal drive. You might add an external drive later, but regardless,
just having an external drive is not a reason to use SATA 2.0 over SATA
1.0. SATA drives are not hot-swappable by default, whether they are
internal or external. Special drive enclosures can be purchased to make
an SATA drive hot-swappable however. Neither SATA 1.0 nor SATA 2.0 use
jumpers. IDE drives are the most well-known for their use of jumpers.
See the section titled “Magnetic Storage Media” in Chapter
6, “Storage Devices” for more information.
45. You are building a new PC and want to select a motherboard that
will support the Scalable Link Interface (SLI) technology so that you
can install two SLI video cards connected by a bridge. Which of the
following expansion slots should the motherboard have for your two video
A. Two AGP slots
B. Two PCIe slots
C. A PCI and PCIe slot
D. An AGP and PCIe slot
Explanation: For SLI to work properly, you will need two identical PCIe
(PCI Express) slots. Although older SLI cards were available for PCI,
the technology can not span different expansion slots. See the section
titled “The Video Subsystem” in Chapter 12, “Video,
Audio, and Peripherals” for more information.
46. Which of the following chkdsk switches can repair data from bad
sectors? (Select the two best answers.)
Answers: B and D
Explanation: /F is used to fix errors on the disk, which includes bad
sectors. /R locates bad sectors only and recovers readable information;
which implies a portion of /F. /? Is the help switch for the chkdsk
command. /X forces the volume to dismount. /V displays the path and
name of each file. See the section titled “Command-Line Tools”
in Chapter 10, “Troubleshooting Windows” for more information.
47. How can an IDE hard disk be set up as a slave drive? (Select the
two best answers.)
A. Set the hard disk’s jumper to the slave position
B. Configure the disk as a slave in the BIOS
C. Connect the hard disk to the secondary IDE port of the motherboard
D. Connect the hard disk to the slave connector of a cable select cable.
Answers: A and D
Explanation: The hard disk can be jumpered to the slave position and
connected to the motherboard, or it can be jumpered to CS (cable select)
and connected to the appropriate connector of the cable select cable.
This needs to be done manually and physically; it is not set up in the
BIOS. Both the primary and secondary IDE ports of a motherboard can
have master and slave drives. See the section titled “Magnetic
Storage Media” in Chapter 6, “Storage Devices” for
48. One of your customers uses IMAP to download their e-mail. One day,
the customer complains that their e-mail client is not downloading e-mail.
Which port should you check is opened?
Explanation: Port 143 needs to be open to download e-mail via IMAP.
Port 110 corresponds to POP3. Port 25 is SMTP. Port 23 is Telnet. See
the section titled “Networking Fundamentals” in Chapter
14, “Networking” for more information.
49. Which type of motherboard enables the use of a riser card?
A. New Low-Profile Extended (NLX)
B. Advanced Technology Extended (ATX)
C. Balanced Technology Extended (BTX)
D. Micro Advanced Technology Extended (Micro ATX)
Explanation: NLX motherboards allow for the use of riser cards. They
are common to computer manufacturers who wish to have a computer case
with a small footprint, yet with the ability to have a lot of internal
devices by building vertically and horizontally, making the most use
of the space available in the case. The motherboard and case must be
compatible. ATX, BTX, and Micro ATX don’t allow for riser cards.
See the section titled “Motherboard Components and Form Factors”
in Chapter 2, “Motherboards” for more information.
50. In Windows 7, which of the following command-line utilities is
used to verify the integrity of protected system files?
Explanation: SFC (system file checker) is a command-line utility used
to check the integrity of protected system files. It can replace incorrect
versions and missing files. Expand is a command used to inflate compressed
files such as those found on an installation CD (for example, ntoskrnl.ex_
can be expanded to ntoskrnl.exe). Chkdsk allows you to check for errors
on a disk. Chkntfs can check to see if a previous system shutdown completed
successfully. A typical option for SFC is /scannow, which scans all
protected system files immediately. See the section titled “Command-Line
Tools” in Chapter 10, “Troubleshooting Windows” for
Hope you enjoyed those questions. Lots more where those came from in
the 5th edition of the A+